CCNA 2 Practice Final v5 answers 2013

CCNA 2 Practice Final v5 answers 2013, Cisco CCNA 2 RSE Practice Final Exam 2014, CCNA 2

Routing and Switching Practice Final Exam v5

1
What is the order of packet types used by an OSPF router to establish convergence?
Hello, DBD, LSR, LSU, LSAck
LSAck, Hello, DBD, LSU, LSR
LSU, LSAck, Hello, DBD, LSR
Hello, LSAck, LSU, LSR, DBD

2
Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)
most
all
gt
host
any
some

3
Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?
a collapsed core network design
a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer
a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions
a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer

4

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

It identifies the subinterface.
It identifies the native VLAN number.
It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface.
It identifies the VLAN number.
It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used.

5
A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and one configured loopback interface is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What does the router OSPF process use to assign the router ID?

the IP address of the interface that is configured with priority 0
the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
the OSPF area ID that is configured on the interface with the highest IP address
the highest IP address that is configured on the WAN interfaces
the loopback interface IP address

6

Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
The NAT pool has been exhausted.
The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.
The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.
Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.

7
Which DHCP IPv4 message contains the following information?

Destination address: 255.255.255.255
Client IPv4 address: 0.0.0.0
Default gateway address: 0.0.0.0
Subnet mask: 0.0.0.0

DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK
DHCPDISCOVER

8

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?

2001:DB8:C5C0:1::2
2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2
FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538
FF02::5

9
Which command will create a static default route on R1 to send all traffic to the Internet and use serial 0/0 as the exit interface?

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0
R1(config)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 serial 0/0

10
A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.
It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.
It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.
It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.

11
What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)

The first 32 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
The last five bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

12
How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

It will not perform recursive lookups.
Static routes that use an exit interface will be unnecessary.
Serial point-to-point interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.
Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

13
Fill in the blank.
Using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing, how many subinterfaces have to be configured to support 10 VLANs?
10

14

Refer to the exhibit. The student on the H1 computer continues to launch an extended ping with expanded packets at the student on the H2 computer. The school network administrator wants to stop this behavior, but still allow both students access to web-based computer assignments. What would be the best plan for the network administrator?

Apply an outbound standard ACL on R2 S0/0/1.
Apply an inbound standard ACL on R1 Gi0/0.
Apply an outbound extended ACL on R1 S0/0/1.
Apply an inbound extended ACL on R1 Gi0/0.
Apply an inbound extended ACL on R2 Gi0/1.

15
What is an advantage of using dynamic routing protocols instead of static routing?

fewer router resource overhead requirements
ability to actively search for new routes if the current path becomes unavailable
more secure in controlling routing updates
easier to implement

16
A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web server. The network administrator does not want any other host to connect to the web server except for the one test computer. Which type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?

an extended, named, or numbered ACL
only a named ACL
only an extended ACL
only a standard ACL
a standard or extended ACL

17

Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 10.1.1.10

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10

18
How many classful networks are summarized by the static summary route ip route 192.168.32.0 255.255.248.0 S0/0/0?
4
2
8
16

19.
A small company has a web server in the office that is accessible from the Internet. The IP address 192.168.10.15 is assigned to the web server. The network administrator is configuring the router so that external clients can access the web server over the Internet. Which item is required in the NAT configuration?

an ACL to identify the local IPv4 address of the web server
the ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses
the keyword overload for the ip nat inside source command
an IPv4 address pool

20
What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

The number of collision domains is reduced.
The size of the broadcast domain is increased.
The number of broadcast domains is increased.
The size of the collision domain is increased.

21

Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?

The DNS server and the default gateway router should be in the same subnet.
The default-router and dns-server commands need to be configured with subnet masks.
The IP address of the DNS server is not contained in the excluded address list.
The IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.

22
When routing a large number of VLANs, what are two disadvantages of using the router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing method rather than the multilayer switch inter-VLAN routing method? (Choose two.)

Multiple SVIs are needed.
Multiple subinterfaces may impact the traffic flow speed.
Router-on-a-stick requires subinterfaces to be configured on the same subnets.
Router-on-a-stick requires multiple physical interfaces on a router.
A dedicated router is required.

23
How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface
the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
the lowest MAC address on an active interface

24
What does an OSPF area contain?

routers whose SPF trees are identical
routers that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs
routers that share the same router ID
routers that share the same process ID

25
Which command will verify the status of both the physical and the virtual interfaces on a switch?

show ip interface brief
show running-config
show vlan
show startup-config

26
Which switching method provides error-free data transmission?

fast-forward
integrity-checking
store-and-forward
fragment-free

27
What is associated with link-state routing protocols?

split horizon
shortest-path first calculations
low processor overhead
routing loops
poison reverse

28

Refer to the exhibit. Which would be chosen as the router ID of R2?

2001:DB8:CAFE:A001::/64
2001:DB8:CAFE:2::/64
The router ID has to be manually configured.
LLA: FE80::2

29

Place the options in the following order: 
Step 3 
– target left blank – 
Step 4 
Step 2 
Step 1

30

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is investigating a lag in network performance and issues the show interfaces fastethernet 0/0 command. Based on the output that is displayed, what two items should the administrator check next? (Choose two.)

duplex settings
cable lengths
electrical interference
incorrect cable types
damaged cable termination

31

The PT initialization was skipped. You will not be able to view the PT activity.
Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
To verify that the SVI is configured correctly, answer this question: Which ping command completed successfully?

ping 192.168.25.7
ping 192.168.25.10
ping 192.168.25.9
ping 192.168.25.8

32
An administrator created and applied an outbound Telnet extended ACL on a router to prevent router-initiated Telnet sessions. What is a consequence of this configuration?

The ACL will work as desired as long as it is applied to the correct interface.
The ACL will not work as desired because an outbound ACL cannot block router-initiated traffic.
The ACL will work as long as it will be applied to all vty lines.
The ACL will not work because only standard ACLs can be applied to vty lines.

33
What is the effect of entering the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command in router configuration mode?
OSPF advertisements will include the specific IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.
OSPF advertisements will include the network on the interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.
This command will have no effect because it uses a quad zero wildcard mask.
The interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1 will be a passive interface.

34
Which type of static route typically uses the distance parameter in the ip route global configuration command?

standard static route
floating static route
default static route
summary static route

35
Which command would be best to use on an unused switch port if a company adheres to the best practices as recommended by Cisco?

ip dhcp snooping
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
shutdown
switchport port-security violation shutdown
switchport port-security mac-address sticky mac-address

36
What is a disadvantage when both sides of a communication use PAT?

The flexibility of connections to the Internet is reduced.
Host IPv4 addressing is complicated.
The security of the communication is negatively impacted.
End-to-end IPv4 traceability is lost.

37
What is meant by the term “best match” when applied to the routing table look-up process?

network match
supernet match
exact match
longest match

38

Place the options in the following order:
hierarchical
modularity
resiliency
– not scored –
flexibility

39
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The duplex full command configures a switch port to operate in the full-duplex mode.

40
An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?

These VLANs are default VLANs that cannot be removed.
Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.
These VLANs can only be removed from the switch by using the no vlan 10 and no vlan 100 commands.
These VLANs cannot be deleted unless the switch is in VTP client mode.

41
An administrator attempts to change the router ID on a router that is running OSPFv3 by changing the IPv4 address on the router loopback interface. Once the IPv4 address is changed, the administrator notes that the router ID did not change. What two actions can the administrator take so that the router will use the new IPv4 address as the router ID? (Choose two.)

Copy the running configuration to NVRAM.
Reboot the router.
Disable and re-enable IPv4 routing.
Shut down and re-enable the loopback interface.
Clear the IPv6 OSPF process.

42

Refer to the exhibit. In the routing table entry, what is the administrative distance?
24
12
2
120

43
Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 100 and 199
access list number between 1 and 99
destination address and wildcard mask
source address and wildcard mask

44

Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN communication between VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 is not successful. What is the problem?
The access interfaces do not have IP addresses and each should be configured with an IP address.
The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.
The switch interfaces FastEthernet0/2, FastEthernet0/3, and FastEthernet0/4 are configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.
The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.

45
In a routing table which route can never be an ultimate route?
parent route
child route
level two route
level one route

46
In which type of attack does a malicious node request all available IP addresses in the address pool of a DHCP server in order to prevent legitimate hosts from obtaining network access?
DHCP snooping
MAC address flooding
CAM table overflow
DHCP starvation

47

Refer to the exhibit. What address will be used as the router ID for the OSPFv3 process?
10.1.1.1
2001:DB8:ACAD:1::1
2001:DB8:CAFE:1::1
192.168.1.1
1.1.1.1

48

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.
The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.
The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.
The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.

49
A college student is studying for the Cisco CCENT certification and is visualizing extended access lists. Which three keywords could immediately follow the keywords permit or deny as part of an extended access list? (Choose three.)
www
udp
tcp
icmp
ftp
telnet

50
When does a switch use frame filtering?
The destination MAC address is for a host on a different network segment from the source of the traffic.
The destination MAC address is for a host with no entry in the MAC address table.
The destination MAC address is for a host on a network supported by a different router.
The destination MAC address is for a host on the same network segment as the source of the traffic.

==========================================================================

NEW QUESTIONS

==========================================================================

1.

Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

(config)# ip routing

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

(config)# interface gigabitethemet1/1
(config-if)# switch port mode trunk

(config)# interface fastethemet0/4
(config-if)# switch port mode trunk

(config)# interface gigabitethemet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
_______________________________________________________________

2. Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
Configure all switch ports to a newVLAN that is notVLAN 1.
Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.
Configure all unused ports to a ‘black hole.”
Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.
Configure SSH for remote management
_______________________________________________________________

3.

Refer to exhibit. A network administrator has just configured translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three)
Three addresses from the NAT pool are beeing used by hosts.
A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.
Address translation is working.
The name of the NAT pool is refCount
Two types of NAT are enabled
One port on the router is not participating in the address translation
_______________________________________________________________

4. Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)
S1(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)#no switchport trunk allowed vlan
S1(config-if)#no switchport trunk native vlan
S1(config-if)#switchport mode access
S1(config-if)#switchport access vlan1
_______________________________________________________________

5. Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
They are not associated with a particular VLAN.
In a switched network, they are mostly configureel between sWitches at the core and distribution layers.
They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
_______________________________________________________________

6.Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)
Configuration of static routes is error-free.
Static routing does not adVertise over the networx, thus providing better security.
No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
The path a stattc route uses to send data IS known.
Static routing typically uses less networx bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.
Static routes scale wen as the network grows.
_______________________________________________________________

7. A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?
routers that exchange LSAs
routers that reside 1n the same area
routers that are reachable over a TCP session
routers that share a link anel use the same routing protocol
_______________________________________________________________

8.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?
Add tile next-l!op neignt>or address of 209.165.200.226.
Change tne destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
Change tne exit interface to S0/0/1.
Add an administrative distance of 254.
_______________________________________________________________

9. What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors
They only send out updates when a new network is added
They use hop count as their only metric
They llood the liNe necwcn Wllh roullng updatos
_______________________________________________________________

10.

 

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